Originally Posted By: NW Ponderer
I had an interesting discussion with my brother, who is a libertarian, this morning that included fishing, the "fair use" doctrine and property rights. (Where he and I have always agreed is that the primary role of government is to prevent individuals from interfering with the interests of other individuals... we just disagree over means, methods and degrees.)


I disagree with both you and your brother, NWP. If two applicants are after the same job and one applicant arrives a half hour earlier than he and the other is supposed to arrive and, as a result, gets the job, he has interfered with the interests of the other applicant. How does the government have any role in such an action? Two people are at an auction and are bidding on the same item for separate clients. One out-bids the other, directly interfering with the business interests of the other. How does the government have any role in such an action? Two women are competing with each other to win the affections and eventual marriage of an eligible man. One of the women bests the other woman and, in so doing, interferes with the other’s interests. How does the government have any role in such an action? I’m going to have to stick to the idea that the primary role of the government is securing and protecting the rights of the individual – not delving about and intruding upon his “interests".

But, I do agree with you that a “Failure of the premise requires failure of the conclusion.” I would say that your premise fails upon the mistaken belief that the state preceded property, resulting in the mistaken conclusion that property and state are inextricably linked.:-)
Yours in exploration,
Issodhos
_________________________
"When all has been said that can be said, and all has been done that can be done, there will be poetry";-) -- Issodhos